Thank you for the tremendous response to the ClearIAS post on “Intelligent Elimination Techniques (IETs)”. By this time, you know that you can find out the correct answer to most UPSC Prelims Questions, by applying IETs, even if you are not sure of the answer.
In this post, we thought to further elaborate the concepts and techniques with more examples. For the demonstration purpose, we have taken questions from the latest UPSC Prelims Question Paper (2018 CSE).
Note: The ‘Disclaimer’ mentioned in the IET article is applicable for this post as well.
Question on 9th Schedule (UPSC CSE 2018)
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A. 1 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Look at the statement parts which we have put in bold. Statement 2 says the validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. It is an extreme statement. In the post on ‘Intelligent Elimination Techniques’, we have warned you to be cautious of extreme statements. Eliminate It. You will arrive at the right answer.
Learning Zone: The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951 along with Article 31-B with a view to providing a “protective umbrella” to land reforms laws to save them from being challenged in courts on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. In IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, various laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were challenged on the ground that any law violating fundamental rights should be struck down as “unconstitutional” and that the court’s power of judicial review cannot be taken away. A nine-judge constitution bench delivered its verdict on the issue in January 2007. Nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court held that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws inserted in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
Question on Wood’s Dispatch (UPSC CSE 2018)
Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
- Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
- Establishment of universities was recommended.
- English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer – A. 1 and 2 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Isn’t there an over stress in Statement 3?
If I were writing this exam, I would eliminate statement 3 directly.
As per the Wood’s Dispatch, the medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher levels it would be English.
Learning Zone: The most important part of the development of education in the 19th century, especially English education, was the guidelines prepared by Charles Wood, the Secretary of State, in 1854, popularly known as the Wood’s Dispatch. It firmly put the European model on the map of Indian education. Its essential features:
- It declared the aim of education in India to be diffusion of European knowledge.
- For higher education, English would be the preferred medium of instruction while the vernacular languages would be the medium through which European knowledge could infilter to the masses.
- This Dispatch recommended grants-in-aid for the first time to encourage private efforts in the field of education.
- It proposed to set up universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras on the model of London University which would hold examinations and confer degrees. The universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were established in 1857.
Question on National Food Security Act 2013 (UPSC CSE 2018)
With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
- The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Correct Answer: B. 2 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Statement 1 has an ‘only’ – which generates a possibility of it being wrong.
As per the act, the “eligible households” means households covered under the priority households and the Antyodaya Anna Yojana households.
Now, what is wrong with statement 3? It mentions a numerical value. Think if that is correct or not?
1600 calories for a pregnant woman? Is that sufficient?
The correct value is 600 Kcal = 600000 calories = 600 Calories (with ‘C’ in capital letters). This makes statement 3 wrong.
Eliminating Statement 1 and 3, what is left with is only statement 2. So the correct answer is B – 2 only.
Learning Zone: Under the act, the State Government shall identify— (a) the households to be covered under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana; (b) the remaining households as priority households to be covered under the Targeted Public Distribution System.
Under section 13 (1) of the National Food Security Act, 2013, eldest woman who is not less than eighteen years of age, in every eligible household, shall be head of the household for the purpose of issue of ration cards. Every pregnant woman and lactating mother shall be entitled to the meal, free of charge, during pregnancy and six months after the childbirth, take-home ration, so as to meet the nutritional standards and maternity benefit of not less than rupees six thousand.
Question on GI Tags (UPSC CSE 2018)
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
- A. ILO
- B. IMF
- C. UNCTAD
- D. WTO
Correct Answer: D. WTO
Intelligent Elimination:
Finding the right answer to this question is very easy.
The question is about GI tags.
Think about items with GI tags – Kashmir Pashmina, Mysore Pak, Aranmula Kannadi, Chanderi Fabric etc. All of these items are in one way or other connected with trade. A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
In the above question, only WTO and UNCTAD are connected with trade. Thus you can instantly eliminate ILO and IMF. However, UNCTAD is more relevant to investment and development. WTO is the organisation which is often in news connected with free trade of goods.
The right answer is WTO.
Learning Zone: India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999, which has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003
Question on Mines and States (UPSC CSE 2018)
Consider the following statements:
- In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
- Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
- Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Correct Answer: D. 3 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Common Sense and Intuition should be used here.
As the statement 1 deals with non-coal mines, an explicit statement mentioning state governments has no power to auction it has less chance to be correct.
Statement 3 mentions that Jharkhand has no gold mines. An aspirant with average knowledge should know that Jharkhand is one of the most mineral-rich states in India. Jharkhand has gold mines like Rungta mines whose auction was held last year.
Learning Zone: State Governments have the power to auction non-coal mines. By States, largest resources in terms of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (45%) followed by Rajasthan (23%) and Karnataka (22%), West Bengal (3%), and Andhra Pradesh & Madhya Pradesh (2% each). Remaining 3% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. In terms of metal content, Karnataka remained on top followed by Rajasthan, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, etc. In Rajasthan, Iron-Ore deposits are located in the district of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara.
Question on BHIM App (UPSC CSE 2018)
With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
- BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
- While a chip-pin debit card has four factors authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A. 1 only
Intelligent Elimination:
To make a statement wrong, the person who sets the question paper has to tweak some values. The easiest way is to tweak numerical values. As the statement 2 mentions that BHIM app has only two factors of authentication, it has every chance of being wrong.
Eliminate that statement, and you will arrive at the right answer.
Learning Zone: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is an initiative to enable fast, secure, reliable cashless payments through your mobile phone. BHIM is interoperable with other Unified Payment Interface (UPI) applications & bank accounts for quick money transfers online.
The BHIM app has three levels of authentication. For one, the app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number, second a user needs to sync whichever bank account (UPI or non-UPI enabled) in order to the conduct transaction. Third, when a user sets up the app they are asked to create a pin which is needed to log into the app. Further, the UPI pin, which a user creates with their bank account is needed to go through with the transaction.
Question on Human capital formation (UPSC CSE 2018)
Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables
- individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
- increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities the people of the country.
- accumulation of tangible wealth.
- accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C. 2 and 4
Intelligent Elimination:
Statement 3 and 4 contradict each other, so the chance of either 3 or 4 be in the answer choice is very high (as per IETs). In that case, we can eliminate A – 1 and 2, B – 2 only, and D – 1, 3, and 4 only.
Only one option remains – C – 2 and 4 – which is obviously the correct answer.
Learning Zone: A substantial part of the human capital formation takes place in one’s life when she/he is unable to decide whether it would maximize her/his earnings. Children are given different types of school education and health care facilities by their parents and society. The peers, educators and society influence the decisions regarding human capital investments even at the tertiary level, that is, at the college level. Moreover, the human capital formation at this stage is dependent upon the already formed human capital at the school level. Human capital formation is partly a social process and partly a conscious decision of the possessor of the human capital.
Physical capital is tangible and can be easily sold in the market like any other commodity. Human capital is intangible; it is endogenously built in the body and mind of its owner. Human capital is not sold in the market; only the services of the human capital are sold and, hence, there arises the necessity of the owner of the human capital to be present in the place of production. The physical capital is separable from its owner, whereas, human capital is inseparable from its owner.
Question on Earth’s magnetic field (UPSC CSE 2018)
Consider the following statements:
- The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
- When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
- When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer – C. 1 and 3 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Again a numerical value!
Be cautious!
Someone tried to accurately measure the oxygen level 4000 million years ago and found out it as 54%. (54% of what???)
Chance of this statement to be wrong is very high.
Also, remember that in the early days of earth, there was no oxygen, hence no photosynthesis but only chemosynthesis.
If you eliminate this option, you can correctly mark the right answer – C. 1 and 3 only
Learning Zone: Scientists understand that Earth’s magnetic field has flipped its polarity many times over the millennia.
The Earth formed approximately 4.5 billion years ago, along with the other seven planets in the solar system. As the Earth cooled, a primitive atmosphere was created by the out-gassing of early volcanoes. The early atmosphere contained no oxygen and would have been toxic to human beings, as well as most other life on Earth today. There was no oxygen in the early atmosphere until simple organisms evolved the capability to carry out photosynthesis. Today, oxygen accounts for approximately 21 per cent of the atmospheric gases and is essential to life.
Question on Carbon Fertilization (UPSC CSE 2018)
Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?
- A. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- B. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- C. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- D. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Correct Answer: A. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Intelligent Elimination:
Another very easy question. The clue to the correct answer is direclty mentioned in the question itself.
Note down the keywords ‘carbon’ and ‘fertilization’. We know, if we apply fertilizers there will be increased plant growth. Only Option A mentions about that. It also mentions about increased concentration of Carbon Di-Oxide which makes sense.
Safely mark Option A. That’s the correct answer.
Learning Zone: Green leaves use energy from sunlight through photosynthesis to chemically combine carbon dioxide drawn in from the air with water and nutrients tapped from the ground to produce sugars, which are the main source of food, fiber and fuel for life on Earth. Studies have shown that increased concentrations of carbon dioxide increase photosynthesis, spurring plant growth. This is known as carbon fertilization.
Question on Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (UPSC CSE 2018)
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :
- It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
- It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C. 2 and 3 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Just like changing the numerical values, there is another favourite method of UPSC question setters to make a question option wrong.
Any guesses?
That is by making the ‘authority’ wrong.
Whenever UPSC mentions that this project/yojana is run by a department/ministry – be cautious. Very often, they are tempting. However, the statement can be wrong.
Here statement 1 is wrong. Why?
Because Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and not Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Learning Zone: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), Training Centres shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF.
Question on Agricultural soils (UPSC CSE 2018)
With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
- A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
- Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
- Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B. 3 only
Intelligent Elimination:
Very easy to eliminate statement 1 and 2. Statement 1 is extreme – it uses the word ‘drastically reduces’. Now consider statement 2. Is there no role for soil in the sulphur cycle? Common sense says that soil plays an important role in almost all cycles. Then how can sulphur be different?
Also, we know that Sulphur occurs in all living matter as a component of certain amino acids. It is abundant in the soil in proteins and, through a series of microbial transformations, ends up as sulfates usable by plants.
Eliminate statements 1 and 2. You got the correct answer.
Learning Zone: Organic matter influences the physical conditions of soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff.
Excessive Irrigation over a period of time results in the salinization of agricultural lands.
Question on Barren Island (UPSC CSE 2018)
Consider the following statements:
- The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
- Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
- The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
Intelligent Elimination
As mentioned in our post on Intelligent Elimination Techniques, whenever there is a ‘number’ mentioned in the question statement, you should be cautious. Putting wrong numerical values in question paper is one of the most common ways of making a question statement wrong.
Just eliminating the statements with numbers, you would arrive at the right answer – A. 1 only
Also, remember that Barren island erupted recently in 2017. That’s why UPSC put this question!
Learning Zone: India’s only active volcano — the Barren Island volcano — in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands spewed lava and ash in 2017, according to a team of scientists from the Goa-based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO).
The Barren Island, about 140 km from Port Blair, is a tourist destination and surrounded by waters ideal for scuba diving and is home to a wide variety of aquatic life. In 1991, the volcano’s eruption was catastrophic for several animal species. However, it was not remaining inactive ever since.
Conclusion
For many aspirants, UPSC Preliminary Exam 2018 was one of the toughest prelims in the last 7 years.
Just a score above 100 out of 200 (net 50 correct answers) was enough to clear Prelims last year. By going through the way ClearIAS Intelligent Elminiation Techniques work on the above questions, do you think clearing Prelims is a tough task, anymore?
It’s not.
However, intelligent elimination is a way of thinking.
Only if you practise the right kind of mock exams, this technique will come naturally to you.
If you ask me what is the best strategy to clear UPSC Prelims in a short time – I would list only 2 action items now.
- ClearIAS Prelims Online Mock Test Series – Practise and Revise all 40 online mock exams. It won’t take much time.
- UPSC Prelims Previous Year Question Papers – Practise Questions from 2011 based on official UPSC Key.
Exam skills are equally important as Knowledge to crack UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE). Our unique products like ClearIAS Prelims Online Test Series incorporate both subject-knowledge as well as exam-skills. All the best!
Thankyou so much Clearias, today I have learnt new technique for question elimination. Thanks again
@ Shashank – Great to know that the techniques helped. All the best!
Very Intelligent ,mind blowing very thanks to Clear IAS
Thank you clear ias for these techniques….it works😊
Thanks a lot, Sir. Your IET boosted my confidence.
Great analysis Team ClearIAS. I am highly motivated! Tricks such as “look alike choices” and “Numerical Values” are new to me. Although I used to look out for extreme statements and Words like “Always, Never, Only”, I was unable to attempt questions with numbers. These tricks are extremely helpful.
Thank you very much Sir.
I have given my test today very confidently because of your techniques. I’m confident that I can clear prelims this time and will be guided by you for mains 2019.😀
Thank you sir…u changed the way I think…if IAM not wrong if 15q comes in this way… really our marks will boost